Originally posted by Stealth
how is the Bible saying the earth hangs in space, or talking about the sphere of the earth an "interpretation"?
You can only play the "interpretation of the Bible" so far, and then it just doesn't make sense anymore. Unless you're implying that the translations over the years weren't accurate, and were edited to fit common beliefs?
Entirely possible. Especially in the case of, for example, Hebrew to Latin to Olde English to modern English. For example, the King James translation apparently has some bias in it which based around the Protestant concept of faith only. There has certainly been changes; for example in KJ the (para)phrase 'stretched the north over the empty place', in newer translations it becomes the north
skies.
For example - your example - the word (hhug) used in the bible which you take to mean sphere, has the dual meaning 'circle' and 'sphere'. From the perspective of someone trying to prove the bible 'right', sphere would be the assumption. From the perspective of anthropology (AFAIK the majority of cultures believed in a flat earth theory, up to and well after its writing), 'circle' would seem more plausible (and indeed was the preferred translation until it was unequivocally proven the earth was spherical).
The bible does not (correctly) say the earth hangs upon space, either, because of contradictions on what the word 'earth' even means; in another passage it is described as immobile, in another it is described as having foundations. You can only reconcile this with modern knowledge by giving that 'earth' different meanings in those 3 (for example) passages.
(also, the concept of space as we know is not necessarily the meaning of space - or rather 'nothing' as described in the bible. AFAIK there's no explicit explanation of the sun, other planets, stars etc in an accurate astronomical sense, although I've not checked fully. certainly the description of God stopping the sun for a battle doesn't chime with reality)
Furthermore, when you ascribe correctness on the basis of divine inspiration, you are really assuming correctness via your own foreknowledge. What the bible does get right, is not necessarily attributable to Gods' divine guidance (for lack of a better term). The value of pi (whilst semi-close, is still wrong) was already known to a far greater accuracy by older cultures, and the concept of a spherical earth was known to the ancient Greeks. Another example being the concept of 'the circuit of the winds'; I would sincerely doubt it requires divine knowledge to notice which way the wind is blowing, particularly in an era when sailboats were used (for example).
As we cannot prove divine inspiration (neither in terms of accuracy of what was written, nor a divine mechanism, i.e. the existence of God), how can we possibly prove the correctness of some or all of the bible itself? As part of the principles of science is a reliance on empirical fact, the bible simply does not qualify for consideration, any more than, (for example) Beowulf can be considered a literal historical document.