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Offline aldo_14

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Fire in the disco!

[q]
and telling someone they're behaving in a delusional fashion is not rude when it's true aldo[/q]

Well, according to googles' first answer
[q]# (psychology) an erroneous belief that is held in the face of evidence to the contrary
# a mistaken or unfounded opinion or idea; "he has delusions of competence"; "his dreams of vast wealth are a hallucination"
# the act of deluding; deception by creating illusory ideas [/q]

The former would be most appropriate in the context here, but any can work.  Basically, if we are to fairly define someone as delusional we need to be able to prove that they are wrong and, moreso, there is evidence to the contrary.  Now, the nature of religion and the supernatural is such that it is designed be both unproveable and un-disproveable.  Because the essential concept of god - any diety - is beyond human comprehension, it is beyond our capacity to devise a series of tests and evidencial objects that would prove the existence or otherwise of the supernatural (if we could do so, it wouldn't be the supernatural).

Ergo, we cannot ever claim to disprove religion any more than it can claim to be proven.  We can disprove certain literal interpretations of religion, but the base element of a supernatural being or beings is simply and perhaps intentionally beyond the ability to draw a conclusion upon it.  So unless you can bring up some neutral, unquivocal evidence that disproves the rather nebulous concept of God (or any divine being, or indeed the supernatural and inobservable), it's rather assumptative and one might say even insulting to describe someone as wrong in their belief or disbelief in such a concept.

Behaving in a delusional fashion would perhaps be the young earth creationists, who believe that science justifies a young earth despite all the evidence to the contrary.  But the base assertion of there not being a supernatural has a lot less evidence than old earth if you wish to contend it.

 

Offline Kazan

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convient that you choose the definition that allows you to build a straw man argument

a mistaken or unfounded opinion or idea


Check. mate.
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Offline aldo_14

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convient that you choose the definition that allows you to build a straw man argument

a mistaken or unfounded opinion or idea


Check. mate.

Are you saying the assertion that there is no God can have foundation if there is no evidence nor manner of gathering evidence to support (or disprove) it?

 

Offline Kazan

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convient that you choose the definition that allows you to build a straw man argument

a mistaken or unfounded opinion or idea


Check. mate.

Are you saying the assertion that there is no God can have foundation if there is no evidence nor manner of gathering evidence to support (or disprove) it?

asserting that something exists but that it's impossible to find evidence to support it is a contradiction

they have no evidence for the existance of a diety therefore their position is unfounded - epsecially when their position makes them assert things in contradiction to evidence (asserting young earth creationism)
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Offline aldo_14

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asserting that something exists but that it's impossible to find evidence to support it is a contradiction

they have no evidence for the existance of a diety therefore their position is unfounded - epsecially when their position makes them assert things in contradiction to evidence (asserting young earth creationism)

Do you have empirical evidence that disproves the possibility of a supernatural diety?

I've already said young earth creationism is delusional because of its dismissal of observable evidence.  But young-earth creationism is not a de-facto part of religion or christianity, just certain sects.

 

Offline Kazan

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asserting that something exists but that it's impossible to find evidence to support it is a contradiction

they have no evidence for the existance of a diety therefore their position is unfounded - epsecially when their position makes them assert things in contradiction to evidence (asserting young earth creationism)

Do you have empirical evidence that disproves the possibility of a supernatural diety?

I. don't. have. to.  you're pigeonholing this into definition 1 again.  Definition 2 makes specific reference to UNFOUNDED.  They don't have evidence supportion their position: none, zero, zilch, nada, bupkis

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I've already said young earth creationism is delusional because of its dismissal of observable evidence.  But young-earth creationism is not a de-facto part of religion or christianity, just certain sects.

I didn't mean to imply so - i was just bolstering my argument by providing an example of a situation fitting Definition 1 to go along with my primary usage which is definition TWO

[edit]
I'm at work - i shouldn't be on here :P

i'll respond later during lunch, then when i get home
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Offline aldo_14

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I. don't. have. to.  you're pigeonholing this into definition 1 again.  Definition 2 makes specific reference to UNFOUNDED.  They don't have evidence supportion their position: none, zero, zilch, nada, bupkis

Do you have empirical evidence supporting your position?

 Do you have, for example, a basis for dismissing the possibility of a supernatural / inobservable 'universe', or - perhaps more relevantly - for asserting the absence of evidence (i.e. can you say you have been able to observe all possible sources of evidence in order to determine there is none)?

If you're calling people delusional for not having evidence of the existence of God, shouldn't you be able to provide some concrete evidence of the non-existence of God?

[edit]
I'm at work - i shouldn't be on here :P

So am I.  Viewserver is bloody slow, though, so I have an excuse :D.

 

Offline Ford Prefect

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Quote
PS i don't think i've ever used a priori to object on this board, though I would like to know how Ford thinks that would be deserving of a pox called upon my house - my best guess is he finds it somewhat hypocritical: which would require such thinking to be  based upon a faulty knowledge of my reasoning and worldview
Goober implied that you had dismissed arguments a priori as categorically invalid, which would be plain incorrect. An assertion a priori is not by definition a fallacy. Or, if you really think it is, you'd better be prepared to write a very lengthy dissertation in opposition to much of the philosophical world. I wished a pox on your house because this is my area of academic concentration, and the thought made me cringe. But again, I don't know if you actually did or not. I apologize if I was mistaken.
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Offline Kazan

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I. don't. have. to.  you're pigeonholing this into definition 1 again.  Definition 2 makes specific reference to UNFOUNDED.  They don't have evidence supportion their position: none, zero, zilch, nada, bupkis

Do you have empirical evidence supporting your position?

I have evidence supporting my assertion that they are behaving in a fashion consistent with the dictionary definition of the word "delusional" and you've seen it yourself

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Do you have, for example, a basis for dismissing the possibility of a supernatural / inobservable 'universe', or - perhaps more relevantly - for asserting the absence of evidence (i.e. can you say you have been able to observe all possible sources of evidence in order to determine there is none)?

yes I do - the very definition of existance.  If something exists in interacts, contraversely if something does not interact it does not exist as far as our universe is concerned.  For a god to be a god it must interact, so to assert that a god exists, cannot be observed (does not interact), but did actions upon our universe is contradictory.

Furthermore I do not have to prove the contrapositive.  They're making an assertion "God Exists" (the positive assertion) it is merely my duty to call their position into question: as for now they have yet to present evidence that indicates the existance of god, or any logic (without fallacy) that necessitates the existance of god.  This renders their position unfounded thereby satisfying definition 2 of delusional as you posted above.

If they sometime manage to come up with evidence or logic (without fallacy) that supports/necessitates the existance of a deity then their position becomes founded and ceases the satisfy definition 2 of delusional - and I would concede to them this point and consider them rational.  However this hasn't yet happened, and I don't anticipate it ever happening (although as a rational individual I leave myself open to the possibility).  However this would only restrict the group of people who are delusional to those who satisfy Definition 1 (such as by asserting YEC)

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If you're calling people delusional for not having evidence of the existence of God, shouldn't you be able to provide some concrete evidence of the non-existence of God?

Nope.  Not in the slightest.  I don't have to disprove their position for their position to be delusional.  See the definition of the word, which you posted.  Their position is unfounded in that they have ZERO evidence to support their position - if they did they would have presented it and it would have been tested. 
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Offline Kazan

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Goober implied that you had dismissed arguments a priori as categorically invalid,

Well being that I do not recall doing so means I did not.

these are the "master lists" i tend to follow
http://www.nizkor.org/features/fallacies/
http://www.infidels.org/news/atheism/logic.html
http://www.intrepidsoftware.com/fallacy/toc.php

(from what I can quickly recall of the meaning of a priori)
I consider a priori to be dangerous, but not inherently invalid.  If all parties in the argument can agree that the propositions are valid then it is acceptable.  However if one of the propositions is invalid then you have a fallacy


/i've gotten rusty on debating the finer points of logic without you guys to keep me on my feet!
« Last Edit: April 18, 2006, 11:21:25 am by Kazan »
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Offline aldo_14

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I have evidence supporting my assertion that they are behaving in a fashion consistent with the dictionary definition of the word "delusional" and you've seen it yourself

So no, then?

yes I do - the very definition of existance.  If something exists in interacts, contraversely if something does not interact it does not exist as far as our universe is concerned.  For a god to be a god it must interact, so to assert that a god exists, cannot be observed (does not interact), but did actions upon our universe is contradictory.

Which would be rather ignoring the theological / philosophical nature of the natural/supernatural arguement; also, how can you define existence & non-existence without knowing everything that exists beforehand in order to set bounds?

There's also a secondary arguement, which is rather more dodgy IMO, that not having evidence of God (so to speak, but this also applies to any supernatural 'action' impacting the observable universe) is rather meaningless so long as we cannot observe all the existing universe.

Furthermore I do not have to prove the contrapositive.  They're making an assertion "God Exists" (the positive assertion) it is merely my duty to call their position into question: as for now they have yet to present evidence that indicates the existance of god, or any logic (without fallacy) that necessitates the existance of god.  This renders their position unfounded thereby satisfying definition 2 of delusional as you posted above.

Can you provide a burden of disproof, i.e. proof for your position?

If they sometime manage to come up with evidence or logic (without fallacy) that supports/necessitates the existance of a deity then their position becomes founded and ceases the satisfy definition 2 of delusional - and I would concede to them this point and consider them rational.  However this hasn't yet happened, and I don't anticipate it ever happening (although as a rational individual I leave myself open to the possibility).  However this would only restrict the group of people who are delusional to those who satisfy Definition 1 (such as by asserting YEC)
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I would speculate that the fundamental purpose of religion is to set up a situation that is both unproveable (requiring faith) and undisproveable (styming arguement against).

Nope.  Not in the slightest.  I don't have to disprove their position for their position to be delusional.  See the definition of the word, which you posted.  Their position is unfounded in that they have ZERO evidence to support their position - if they did they would have presented it and it would have been tested. 

but can't I just call you delusional if you can't provide evidence to support your position?  You've only specified a philosophical arguement about the capacity for the supernatural to influence the observable world and a theoretical 'action' that would be observable; I'd say philosophy is far from being hard evidence.

In order to dismiss someone as delusional, you have to provide hard evidence that their position is wrong.  The nature of this arguement precludes that; regardless of how you state your arguement, or even the content of it, the domain of this type of theology/philosophy precludes hard proof.

 

Offline Kazan

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I have evidence supporting my assertion that they are behaving in a fashion consistent with the dictionary definition of the word "delusional" and you've seen it yourself


So no, then?

so yes then since you've seen them assert things WITHOUT evidence repeatedly and you've seen them assert things CONTRARY to evidence repeatedly

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yes I do - the very definition of existance.  If something exists in interacts, contraversely if something does not interact it does not exist as far as our universe is concerned.  For a god to be a god it must interact, so to assert that a god exists, cannot be observed (does not interact), but did actions upon our universe is contradictory.

Which would be rather ignoring the theological / philosophical nature of the natural/supernatural arguement; also, how can you define existence & non-existence without knowing everything that exists beforehand in order to set bounds?

Which would be finding the theological/philosophical assertion that you can have something exist, but not be able to be measured invalid.  Or more properly: moot.  If something exists, yet doesn't interact with our universe (any interaction makes it observable) than for all purposes that thing doesn't exist in our universe.

because the definition existance and non-existance don't rely on you knowing everything! If something exists it interacts with our universe and is therefore part of it and observable, if something inobservable: therefore meaning it does not interact, it effectively does not exist.


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There's also a secondary arguement, which is rather more dodgy IMO, that not having evidence of God (so to speak, but this also applies to any supernatural 'action' impacting the observable universe) is rather meaningless so long as we cannot observe all the existing universe.


argumentum ad ignorantium

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Furthermore I do not have to prove the contrapositive.  They're making an assertion "God Exists" (the positive assertion) it is merely my duty to call their position into question: as for now they have yet to present evidence that indicates the existance of god, or any logic (without fallacy) that necessitates the existance of god.  This renders their position unfounded thereby satisfying definition 2 of delusional as you posted above.

Can you provide a burden of disproof, i.e. proof for your position?

You're shifting the burdeon of proof - burdeon is always on the person ASSERTING something.  I am asserting that they're acting in a manner consistent with the definition of the word delusional and I am providing logical arguments and empirical evidence (which you have seen your self on this board) that they are doing so.

They are asserting that god exists so the burdeon of proof for that lies on them.  You cannot prove the negative.

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If they sometime manage to come up with evidence or logic (without fallacy) that supports/necessitates the existance of a deity then their position becomes founded and ceases the satisfy definition 2 of delusional - and I would concede to them this point and consider them rational.  However this hasn't yet happened, and I don't anticipate it ever happening (although as a rational individual I leave myself open to the possibility).  However this would only restrict the group of people who are delusional to those who satisfy Definition 1 (such as by asserting YEC)


I would speculate that the fundamental purpose of religion is to set up a situation that is both unproveable (requiring faith) and undisproveable (styming arguement against).


then you are speculating it's purpose is to make you be delusional.  believing in the unprovable/unsupportable satisfies definition 2 of delusional THAT YOU POSTED YOURSELF 


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Nope.  Not in the slightest.  I don't have to disprove their position for their position to be delusional.  See the definition of the word, which you posted.  Their position is unfounded in that they have ZERO evidence to support their position - if they did they would have presented it and it would have been tested. 

but can't I just call you delusional if you can't provide evidence to support your position?

I already have: I have provided you with sufficient logical proofs (which you have yet to falsify) that they are satisfying the definition of the word, and you have yourself seen them so do so you have the empirical evidence.

You however fail to acknowledge it (For whatever reason I will not speculate) it and simply keep trying to commit a shifting of the burdeon of proof fallacy on me by trying to shift proof THEY are responsible for on my shoulder by demanding a counterproof to their assertion.

You're harping on about definition 1 which requires counterproof when I'm talking about definition 2 which does not, but ALSO pointing out situations in which BOTH 1 and 2 are satisified (their position is unfounded AND counterevidence is available)


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You've only specified a philosophical arguement about the capacity for the supernatural to influence the observable world and a theoretical 'action' that would be observable; I'd say philosophy is far from being hard evidence.

no i've asserted that "Supernatural" is linguistically equivalent to "non-existant".  The realm of science and logic is all existance, everything that exists can be detected, measured, quantified, and analyzed.  If something is not observable it does not exist.   So when you specifiy something to be "supernatural" (beyond nature, beyond existance) you are admitting RIGHT THERE that you are talking about fairytail magic voodoo l33tness that doesn't exist.

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In order to dismiss someone as delusional, you have to provide hard evidence that their position is wrong.

NO YOU DON'T you posted the very definition which DISPROVES their false assertion YOURSELF

The level if intellectual dishonesty you are displaying is absolutely appauling. 

Posted BY YOURSELF on Page 6
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# (psychology) an erroneous belief that is held in the face of evidence to the contrary
# a mistaken or unfounded opinion or idea; "he has delusions of competence"; "his dreams of vast wealth are a hallucination"
# the act of deluding; deception by creating illusory ideas

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The nature of this arguement precludes that; regardless of how you state your arguement, or even the content of it, the domain of this type of theology/philosophy precludes hard proof.

Bullocks - something either exists or it doesn't.

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Offline Ghostavo

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Quote
The nature of this arguement precludes that; regardless of how you state your arguement, or even the content of it, the domain of this type of theology/philosophy precludes hard proof.

Bullocks - something either exists or it doesn't.

Schrödinger's cat?
"Closing the Box" - a campaign in the making :nervous:

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Offline Kazan

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The nature of this arguement precludes that; regardless of how you state your arguement, or even the content of it, the domain of this type of theology/philosophy precludes hard proof.

Bullocks - something either exists or it doesn't.

Schrödinger's cat?

inapplicable
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Offline Ford Prefect

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Bullocks - something either exists or it doesn't.
It appears that Kazan has single-handedly rendered ontology obsolete.
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Offline aldo_14

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[q]
so yes then since you've seen them assert things WITHOUT evidence repeatedly and you've seen them assert things CONTRARY to evidence repeatedly[/q]

You'll have to provide some examples.  Bear in mind I've already qualified things such as young-earth as creationism as deluded, and my comments have been pretty much directed to the root theology, i.e. the proposed supernatural.

[q]
Which would be finding the theological/philosophical assertion that you can have something exist, but not be able to be measured invalid.  Or more properly: moot.  If something exists, yet doesn't interact with our universe (any interaction makes it observable) than for all purposes that thing doesn't exist in our universe.

because the definition existance and non-existance don't rely on you knowing everything! If something exists it interacts with our universe and is therefore part of it and observable, if something inobservable: therefore meaning it does not interact, it effectively does not exist.
[/q]

But in making that conclusion, you would have to be able to define all interactions both taking place, taken place, and possible of taking place in order in order to assert there has been no supernatural interaction.

Furthermore, the root proposition behind religion has been rooted in a diety which resides outside our universe, i.e would not be expected to exist in our universe.  Largely because said diety tends to be credited for the creation of the universe.

[q]
argumentum ad ignorantium[/q]

Can be applied conversely.  Neither existence nor non-existance can be proven, that's the whole nature of the problem, and in terms of factual evidence neither position can claim to be anything beyond ignorant.

[q]You're shifting the burdeon of proof - burdeon is always on the person ASSERTING something.  I am asserting that they're acting in a manner consistent with the definition of the word delusional and I am providing logical arguments and empirical evidence (which you have seen your self on this board) that they are doing so.

They are asserting that god exists so the burdeon of proof for that lies on them.  You cannot prove the negative.[/q]

You are asserting they are wrong, ergo God does not exist.  Therefore you also have a burden of proof in proving your own statement correct in order to qualify the accusation.  The problem is that in order to prove delusion you need to prove wrong.  All you have been able to demonstrate, frankly IMO, the possibility of being wrong because there is a lack of evidence either way.  Whilst I am aware of the epistemological difficulties of an arguement about the supernatural, I would say it's pretty bloody impolite to call someone delusional when you can't provide any sort of factual evidence to contradict them.

You will note there have been multiple citations of the meaning of the word delusional, of course, with small yet crucial semantic differences.  I, for example, just pasted the top 3 out of the google 'define' result, and you found one with which to contradict that.

Of course, the psychological definition really refers to real life situations (i.e. that can occur in reality, but do not and are imagined by the patient), so I don't think that applies (this is just an aside BTW).

[q]
then you are speculating it's purpose is to make you be delusional.  believing in the unprovable/unsupportable satisfies definition 2 of delusional THAT YOU POSTED YOURSELF [/q]

Speculating, yes.  Stating it as fact, no, because you missed the gist of the statement.  Namely, that religious belief is intended and has a manifest purpose of support by faith, so it selects what is in effect an unknown.  Not true, not false, but unknown.  It's important to note this when calling people delusional, because the whole purpose of religious belief is based upon the absence of evidence either way.  i.e. someone who is Christian, Jewish, Muslim, etc, is or should be fully aware of the difficulties of evidence and that the entire point of a belief structure is the belief.  If they were delusional, they'd claim evidence in x, y, and z that could be contradicted by a,b, and c.

[q]I already have: I have provided you with sufficient logical proofs (which you have yet to falsify) that they are satisfying the definition of the word, and you have yourself seen them so do so you have the empirical evidence.

You however fail to acknowledge it (For whatever reason I will not speculate) it and simply keep trying to commit a shifting of the burdeon of proof fallacy on me by trying to shift proof THEY are responsible for on my shoulder by demanding a counterproof to their assertion.

You're harping on about definition 1 which requires counterproof when I'm talking about definition 2 which does not, but ALSO pointing out situations in which BOTH 1 and 2 are satisified (their position is unfounded AND counterevidence is available)[/q]

You've provided a personal definition of existence which manifestly sits outside the very obvious parameters of a supernatural diety or dieties.  If you want accuse people of delusion, you need to prove the basis of your arguement; not cite your own opinion on what constitutes the burden of proof for non-existence.  I am not interested in trying to falsify your personal 'proofs' any more than I am trying to form a disproof of God, because it's rather obvious the concept itself is designed to be an unknown and unknowable.

[q]no i've asserted that "Supernatural" is linguistically equivalent to "non-existant".  The realm of science and logic is all existance, everything that exists can be detected, measured, quantified, and analyzed.  If something is not observable it does not exist.   So when you specifiy something to be "supernatural" (beyond nature, beyond existance) you are admitting RIGHT THERE that you are talking about fairytail magic voodoo l33tness that doesn't exist.
[/q]

Again, you miss the point, which is that the whole concept of religion is based on the observable universe not  being the only form of existence.  You have to disprove that possibility as part of disproving God, and it's simply impossible.  It may be designed that way for obvious belief propagation, of course, but it still applies if you want to conclude people are wrong you need to evidence it.

[q]
NO YOU DON'T you posted the very definition which DISPROVES their false assertion YOURSELF

The level if intellectual dishonesty you are displaying is absolutely appauling.

Posted BY YOURSELF on Page 6
[/q]

Oh crap, you've only been un-monkeyed for a day and the dread big red text o doom appears.  Nevermind.

Ok, let me think here.  you need to prove this is unfounded.  To prove it is unfounded, you need to address the factual basis for it.  The problem is, God as a belief is, shall we say, designed to be based on an intangible. The basis of belief is the understanding of that and that faith is required in the unknown.  For that to be on a delusional basis, I believe you'd have to prove that unknown is actually known.

[q]
Bullocks - something either exists or it doesn't. [/q]

In hard physical terms perhaps.  In human philosophical terms, not really.  We have a lot of things that are open within the terms of human thought.  Are we the only intelligent life in the universe, for example.  Within the concept of our societal knowledge, than answer is either.  All unknown things are 2 state until we discover them.  May exist, may not.  Shroedingers' cat being the perfect example of an unknown.

And when we come to the domain of a postulative supernatural diety, we have a domain that is expressly outside the bounds of evidence.

 

Offline Kazan

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actually no - my "ontology" if you want to invoke -ogolies not worthy of the suffix is that something either exists or it doesn't and something only exists if it interacts with our universe
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Offline aldo_14

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actually no - my "ontology" if you want to invoke -ogolies not worthy of the suffix is that something either exists or it doesn't and something only exists if it interacts with our universe

Ah, 'not worthy'.  Redefining the problem domain, are we?

 

Offline Kazan

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But in making that conclusion, you would have to be able to define all interactions both taking place, taken place, and possible of taking place in order in order to assert there has been no supernatural interaction.

not at all - the elegance of the definition is you DON'T need this knowledge in advance, if you learn of a form of interaction you previously didn't know about the definition is broad enough to accept the new information without a hitch.

Taking place, taken place and possible are all OBSERVABLE. 

You are trying to assert that it is impossible to define existance-nonexistance.  Well independantly you cannot - non-existance is easy to define because it is the contrapositive of existance.  Existance is EASY to define

All objects that can be observed (which means they interact w/ e/o) can be said to exist.


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Furthermore, the root proposition behind religion has been rooted in a diety which resides outside our universe, i.e would not be expected to exist in our universe.  Largely because said diety tends to be credited for the creation of the universe.

hence adding to the bull**** factor of religion


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Can be applied conversely.  Neither existence nor non-existance can be proven, that's the whole nature of the problem, and in terms of factual evidence neither position can claim to be anything beyond ignorant.

No it cannot be applied consersely - i'm not stating that something exists merely because it cannot be disproven.  My positive assertion is that "people who believe in things without evidence and despite evidence fit the dictionary definition of delusional" and I have cited support of that.


There is absolutely no evidence to support the existance of dieties - yet people believe in them.  This satisifies definition 2 of delusional.  We're arguing SEMANTICS and my statement has already been established true because it's a ****ing tautology!


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You are asserting they are wrong, ergo God does not exist.

Incorrect - I am stating that they have not provided ANY evidence and therefore their position is unfounded.

Don't use non-equivolant words as standings for creating straw man arguments.


Quote
Therefore you also have a burden of proof in proving your own statement correct in order to qualify the accusation.

Incorrect based upon previous assertion being false.


splitting post for emphasis
« Last Edit: April 18, 2006, 02:32:25 pm by Kazan »
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God Bless Schrodinger and his zombie cats! ;)