But it didn't. The court said they preferred they do it a different way, but did not issue any formal judgement (from the snippets I read) other than the evidence was allowed.
The abuse is allowed without penalty. The penalty is left to the department. So, the abuse is codified. The penalty is left up in the air (including no penalty). I do not want to be the innocent man picked up for mistaken identity and tasered into consenting to a rights violation. What's now to stop them from doing that before my lawyer arrives, if I am picked up on a valid arrest warrant (which is a court order)? Where do you draw the line? Are all people subject to court orders allowed to be tasered? Period? This draws no lines that I can see (it appears the opinion itself is yet to be published on the court's website, or I am looking in the wrong place).
This decision, and the circumstances that led to it, is/are a problem in the American judicial system, partly because the way that system works. I can only hope a higher appellate strikes it down.
I don;t think, you understand precedent as it applies to American jurisprudence, since you have been dismissive of it now on 2 occasions. Its a powerful force in US law, often overcoming common sense.
This has much deeper implications than simply one stupid lawyer trying a "trick" to get one scumbag acquitted. And hoping that the deterrent of a POSSIBLE penalty for doing a wrong thing is overcome by "getting the bad guy" will prevent abuse is naive, again assuming that the decision includes no stronger language than cited above.
I'll be looking for the appeal to this, the judge was irresponsible in allowing this (if its as presented), but I suppose no more irresponsible than the previous administrations creation of Gitmo, the withdrawal of Habeas Corpus, etc.
-edit-
Once again, someone has said it more succinctly than me, sorry for reiterating Flips comments so obtusely
