Everyone stop, right now, before this gets any more stupid. Read this part of the article:
In September 2008, prosecutors asked for another DNA sample because the first one had been sent to the wrong laboratory and could not be used. Sperrazza [Ryan's note: The judge] signed the second request and Falls Police went looking for Smith.
When they found Smith and took him to police headquarters, he refused to give another sample, telling the officers that he would have to “be tased” to give one. After detectives and officers tried to get Smith to comply with the court order, and he refused, they drive stunned him with a Taser and then took the DNA sample.
Balkin had argued that the use of the Taser to get Smith to give up the DNA sample violated his constitutional right against an unreasonable search and seizure. Sperrazza ruled that the police action was reasonable.
This should not be a surprise to anyone.
The use of force to enforce a COURT ORDER is well established in Common Law. This ranges from warrants for arrest to compelling the appearance of an accused or convicted person before a judge. How that force is applied must be reasonable, but there is no limitation on what tools can be used within that definition of reasonable (and the court is who decides what reasonable force is).
So, to summarize:
1. Person gives a DNA sample voluntarily.
2. Sample gets screwed up.
3. A JUDGE, acting within the force of law, orders the person to provide another legal sample.
4. Person refuses - which is a criminal offence.
5. Officers, acting on the authority of a court order, use reasonable force to force the subject to comply with the court order (e.g. to provide a DNA sample).
It's a novelty because it's the first time a Taser has been used and challenged in this context, but it is absolutely no different legally than the officers holding him down and prying his mouth open to take the swab. The only difference is that the Taser has to be deemed a REASONABLE use of force in this instance. Who decides that? The court - no one else.
So before we blow this all out of proportion and throwing out accusations of trampling on rights, PLEASE bother to understand what the case is about. The decision means, in a single sentence:
A Taser, properly applied and justified, is an acceptable level of force for the enforcement of a court order.
That's it. It has nothing to do with how the sample is obtained, whether it's justified, etc. The sample (e.g. what the lawyer argued was unreasonable search and seizure) is justified because the court order says so. The use of force applied to compel it is reasonable because the court says so. The end.
Don't turn this into a 10-page discussion completely irrelevant to the decision at hand.