If you're going to use that argument you're still wrong about it being the French who were first. The Commonwealth of Vermont abolished slavery over 15 years previous to that. When they joined the US that was overturned but by the rules you're trying to claim for this that still pre-dates the French. Oh and while we're at it you can probably find much earlier cases throughout history where slavery was abolished and then later reinstated.
Vyper specifically said peers, which i took to mean nations of similar and contempary stature, if you think Vermont counts as such I wont argue with you. And I'm not missing the point, if you read up on it you'll find that the emancipation was more due to the efforts of several leaders of the revolution who were abolitionists, Abbe Gregoire, Lafayette, Condorcet to name a few. The revolting slaves were incorporated into the french revolutionary army and fought against Napoleon when he tried to recapture the colonies, why do this if you're intending to enslave them again? You say I've no proof they wouldnt have reinstated it again yet provide no proof they would have, nor does anything I've read on the matter.
Wrong. If you'd bothered to click the links I posted you would have noticed that several of those attempts to create a Jewish homeland pre-date the declaration. The British are responsible for choosing possibly the worst place in the world they could possibly have put the Jews but they aren't responsible for the zionist movement as that started long before they got involved.
The only plan there that predates the balfour declaration is another british one, I'm discounting the argentinian one because it was a zionist one and not taken up by any government. The Oblast was formed in '28 and was for soviet jews, not the jewish people as a whole. Dunno why you'd think I'd hold britain for the start of zionism, possibly because of the it wasnt on anyone elses agenda remark? I was discounting zionism there because they were the ones who began the jewish homeland thing, obviously it was on their agenda. I quite clearly said it was the result of
european persecution. And if the british are responsible for choosing the place of the jewish homeland why is it unfair to point this out? Do you think they were obliged to give the jews a homeland? Would a better course of action not have been to address the problems instead of dumping its victims on another continent?