[TopAce]

The Question

We have sentences like these in English:

1) John and I went to the cinema.
2) John and me went to the cinema.

The difference is one pronoun - an I and a me - and both sentences mean the same. Both are used, but there's debate about which one is "more" correct.

I'd like to make a survey here at HLP. What do you think about the two sentences above? Which one is correct/preferable, and why? Also if you decide to post, please indicate if you're a native speaker or not.

My Comment (non-native speaker)
I personally prefer 1) because "I went to the cinema" is a valid sentence, while "Me went to the cinema" is not. John is simply an additional agent in the sentence, so there's no (grammatical) reason to change the nominative I to the accusative me. However, I don't mind hearing 2), because I'm aware that it's widely used.

In addition, I was taught to use 2) because "it was nicer," but as soon as I started to view this sentence pair more critically, I started to prefer 1).

[Wobble73]

The first one is definitely correct, the second would be more correct if it read.... "Me and John went to the cinema" not "John and me", but still the preferred option in the native English language would be the first.

[Flipside]

'John and I' is the standard English version, you might get away with 'John and myself', but, strictly speaking 'John and me' would be considered passable, but wrong.

[Pred the Penguin]

I'm not sure if I count as a native-speaker. I've been away from the states for 6 years and my English has suffered.
But I'd definitely choose 1) over 2).

Personally I haven't heard 2) used too much with native-speakers.

[Nuke]

i usually go with 2, even though its grammatically incorrect.

[Black Wolf]

A lot of people say 2, but it's definitely incorrect, for exactly the reason you stated (about the proper sentence using I).

[karajorma]

Grammar is not decided by popular vote.

1.

[Nuke]

languages evolve by people not adhering to the strict code of grammar.

[Solatar]

'I' is in the English subjective case (nominative case for everyone else).  The way this becomes confusing is when somebody decides they are smarter than everyone and says "*he went to the movies with John and I" - thinking they are being correct, and probably acting smug about it.  In that case, you would use "John and me" because you use the objective case (accusative for other languages) after a preposition.

So you'll hear both 'John and I' and "John and me", but they aren't interchangeable.

Colloquial English likes to use 'me' instead of I, but it also likes to say 'me and John'.

[Rodo]

Leaning towards 1, I don't follow a particular rule when speaking/writing English sentences... from the start I've always been repeating the sentence to myself and then choosing the one that I feel to correct.


..And now you know why my english sucks so bad, sorry to make your eyes hurt   

[Flipside]

'I' is in the English subjective case (nominative case for everyone else).  The way this becomes confusing is when somebody decides they are smarter than everyone and says "*he went to the movies with John and I" - thinking they are being correct, and probably acting smug about it.  In that case, you would use "John and me" because you use the objective case (accusative for other languages) after a preposition.

So you'll hear both 'John and I' and "John and me", but they aren't interchangeable.

Colloquial English likes to use 'me' instead of I, but it also likes to say 'me and John'.

Actually, under classical English, 'Me and John' is considered bad manners, but it's a very old rule.

[Solatar]

It is (and I was taught that growing up as well, always put yourself last) but it doesn't change the fact that it's commonly spoken.

[Flipside]

Agreed, I don't even know if that rule is taught any more.

[Qent]

I'm a native speaker. I consider the first correct and the second incorrect, and I use the first.

I say "It's me" although I consider that incorrect, because it sounds better.

[Klaustrophobia]

1 is grammatically correct, though around here it's much more common to hear "me and John".  i probably use that one more often too, but "John and me" sounds terrible to me. 

[NGTM-1R]

Labelling either one of these incorrect if used in speech (including written dialogue) as opposed to text is a sign of terrible grammatical pendancy and should result in a death sentence.

[Flipside]

God forbid there should be rules or anything

Edit: And just to clarify, yes, I know what you mean, when presented as dialogue, anything goes

[Mongoose]

I say "It's me" although I consider that incorrect, because it sounds better.

That's pretty much my only exception too.  I know "It's me" is grammatically incorrect, but "It's I" sounds nothing short of unnatural.

[Jeff Vader]

I say "It's me" although I consider that incorrect, because it sounds better.

That's pretty much my only exception too.  I know "It's me" is grammatically incorrect, but "It's I" sounds nothing short of unnatural.

But "It is I" sounds stylish, because Dak'kon in Planescape: Torment said that.

[Flipside]

It's probably better not to abbreviate 'It is' in those cases, in England we still use 'It is I', though more as a sort of Comedy thing, and we even use the much more archaic "'Tis I" as well, ('Tis being an extremely old abbreviation of 'It is')