Author Topic: For clarification purposes!  (Read 7976 times)

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Offline Goober5000

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Re: For clarification purposes!
The letters of Paul were written in the 50s or 60s AD.  For the gospels, even the most liberal dating puts them no longer than AD 100.  There is compelling evidence that no New Testament book was written later than 70 AD.

The gospels were written by either people who knew Jesus directly (Matthew and John) or people who were close friends of people who knew Jesus directly (Mark and Luke).  They were either eyewitnesses or had firsthand information, and they appeal to their readers for the truth of what they are writing.  So their documents qualify as contemporary.  (Incidentally, legends and mythologies don't tend to surface until at least 200 years after the events they're derived from.)

And as for non-Christian Roman writers, now that I have my sources, I can list Tacitus, Josephus, and Pliny the Younger, among others, as chronicling historical events also listed in the New Testament.  Thallus and Julius Africanus document the three hours of darkness and the earthquake associated with the crucifixion of Jesus.  Mara Bar-Serapion directly links the crucifixion of Jesus with the Jewish diaspora.

 

Offline Polpolion

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Re: For clarification purposes!
...
.....
........
 :wtf:

So basically you are comparing me and others to someone who believes his third wife was impregnated by a demon and so forth...

I mean I suppose I can see the similarity from a certain gross POV, but that's like comparing a Yugo to a Maserati by sight from 20km distance....


 :wtf:

They're not literally comparing your viewpoints. They're comparing how people see your viewpoints. If they were comparing your viewpoints, she would've said: "this is you," not "this is what people think of you."

  

Offline karajorma

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Re: For clarification purposes!
The letters of Paul were written in the 50s or 60s AD.  For the gospels, even the most liberal dating puts them no longer than AD 100.  There is compelling evidence that no New Testament book was written later than 70 AD.

Where?

Even the more generous figures on wikipedia put John at 85 AD.


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The gospels were written by either people who knew Jesus directly (Matthew and John)

That disagrees with pretty much every single biblical scholar I've ever heard talk about who wrote John. Most scholars say that it was unlikely to be the same John who was his disciple. Especially given the late date the gospel was written. And there is plenty of controversy over Matthew too.

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or people who were close friends of people who knew Jesus directly (Mark and Luke).

So not direct eyewitnesses then. And not writing very soon after the events either.

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Incidentally, legends and mythologies don't tend to surface until at least 200 years after the events they're derived from.


Yet the Koran was around less than 20 years after Muhammad's death. The New Testament is so named for good reason. It existed in a time when things were written down more quickly than in the OT. So a 30 year gap isn't exactly unprecedented. 

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And as for non-Christian Roman writers, now that I have my sources, I can list Tacitus, Josephus, and Pliny the Younger, among others, as chronicling historical events also listed in the New Testament. 

Such as? Cause no one sensible is going to dispute that the New Testament has some element of fact in it. Even if the story of Jesus was a complete fabrication there would almost certainly be some kernel of truth somewhere in the book. What supporting evidence do they give that Jesus existed? Cause if you can get Pliny the Younger mentioning him that's definitely a source I'd accept.

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Thallus

Whose works are lost and only exist in the form of later documents that mention fragments of his work.

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and Julius Africanus

I'll need a link to that one cause if you mean Sextus Julius Africanus he most definitely wasn't contemporary.

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Mara Bar-Serapion directly links the crucifixion of Jesus with the Jewish diaspora.

It's possibly a reference to Jesus but given that the dating is somewhere between 70AD and 200AD that's certainly not contemporary. It's only barely more proof than you doing it. :p

Also.
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Offline Mobius

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Re: For clarification purposes!
The letters of Paul were written in the 50s or 60s AD.  For the gospels, even the most liberal dating puts them no longer than AD 100.  There is compelling evidence that no New Testament book was written later than 70 AD.

Considering that people rarely became older than 50 back then, 100 years between the facts and the scripts, compared to modern time, it's like 200 years.

That's a lot. Anyone could change anything during that period of time. Also, I'd like to put an emphasis on the differences between gospels - their existance needs a valid explanation.

Not to mention several gospels which have been marked as "Non canon" (it reminds FS debates :lol) by the Church of the origins. l It's too easy to find the Canon gospels plausible after the tremendous analysis they'd undergone, after which they sounded ok to the Church. How to deal with the others? Some (if not all) of them are newer than Canon ones, but yet still they had their importance - imagine how many Christians based their beliefs on Non canon gospels until the Church decided to consider them "fake". Imagine how many important events the Church has decided to hide on purpose for various reasons.

Finally, I'd like to know what you religious guys think about Mithra - he may be enough to prove Jesus guilty of plagiarism... :rolleyes:
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Offline Scotty

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Re: For clarification purposes!
This may just be a nitpick from me, but why should we believe anything wikipedia says?

Anyway, we're forgetting that Paul, who granted did not meet Jesus, wrote the majority of the New Testament before 65 A.D., or roundabouts, when he was executed.  That would put the mark at somewhere around thirty years after the death of Jesus (c. 33 A.D).

 

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Uhm my post is based on my readings - I've never cared about Wikipedia when trying to find out more about religion. I also read the Italian version of "Watch Tower", by Jahova's Witnesses, to know more (despite being Atheist at heart).
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Offline Scotty

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Speaking to Kara on the wiki comment.

 

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Oh, right. Use quotes to avoid confusion. :)
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Offline General Battuta

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Re: For clarification purposes!
This may just be a nitpick from me, but why should we believe anything wikipedia says?

Anyway, we're forgetting that Paul, who granted did not meet Jesus, wrote the majority of the New Testament before 65 A.D., or roundabouts, when he was executed.  That would put the mark at somewhere around thirty years after the death of Jesus (c. 33 A.D).

Because on most articles it has fewer errors than the Encyclopedia Britannica, according to double-blind review?

There are some areas you should avoid, but for the most part it's very reliable (particularly in the sciences.)

 

Offline Goober5000

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Re: For clarification purposes!
The gospels and epistles make numerous appeals to things that the readers have seen and heard:

  • Luke 1: "Just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses ... it seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write to you an orderly account."
  • 2 Peter 1: "For we did not follow cunningly devised fables ... but were eyewitnesses of his majesty."
  • 1 John 1: "That which we have seen and heard we declare to you."
  • Acts 2: "Men of Israel ... Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs ... as you yourselves also know"  (Not only does Peter claim to be an eyewitness, he is reminding his enemies that they know for themselves the truth of what he is telling them.)

As far as "We are witnesses of these things" concerns friendly witnesses, and "You yourselves also know" concerns hostile witnesses, the documents must all have been written within the lifetimes of those who witnessed Jesus's ministry.


Regarding the time of first authorship, the scholarship of Werner Georg Kummel, Everett Harrison, D. Edmond Hiebert, F.C. Baur, and William Foxwell Albright support the following dating scheme for most of the New Testament:

Epistles of PaulA.D 50-66
MattewA.D. 70-80
MarkA.D. 50-60
LukeA.D. 60-65
JohnA.D. 80-100


Irenaeus, martyred in 156 A.D. after having been a Christian for 86 years, had this to say about the New Testament:
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"So firm is the ground upon which these Gospels rest, that the very heretics themselves bear witness to them, and, starting from these documents, each one of them endeavors to establish his own particular doctrine."


The account by Thallus that I mentioned is referenced by Julius Africanus in A.D. 221.  Thallus wrote the direct account (which does not survive) and Julius is commenting on it:
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"On the whole world there pressed a most fearful darkness, and the rocks were rent by an earthquake, and many places in Judea and other districts were thrown down.  This darkness Thallus, in the third book of his history, calls, as appears to me without reason, an eclipse of the sun."


Pliny the Younger has this to say in a letter to Emperor Trajan, regarding the early Christians, in A.D. 112:
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"They were in the habit of meeting on a certain fixed say before it was light, when they sang in alternate verses a hymn to Christ, as to a god ... and then reassemble to partake of food, but food of an ordinary and innocent kind."


According to Michael Wilkins and J.P. Moreland, even absent any Christian writings, historians could conclude the following:

  • Jesus was a Jewish teacher
  • many people believed that he performed healings and exorcisms
  • he was rejected by the Jewish leaders
  • he was crucified under Pontius Pilate in the reign of Tiberius
  • all kinds of people -- men and women, slave and free -- worshiped him as God

 

Offline karajorma

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Re: For clarification purposes!
This may just be a nitpick from me, but why should we believe anything wikipedia says?

I gave references to back up what I said. Goober didn't even do that.

Perhaps you should be asking why we should believe anything he says? :p

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Anyway, we're forgetting that Paul, who granted did not meet Jesus, wrote the majority of the New Testament before 65 A.D., or roundabouts, when he was executed.  That would put the mark at somewhere around thirty years after the death of Jesus (c. 33 A.D).

You sure?

The gospels and epistles make numerous appeals to things that the readers have seen and heard:

  • Luke 1: "Just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses ... it seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write to you an orderly account."
  • 2 Peter 1: "For we did not follow cunningly devised fables ... but were eyewitnesses of his majesty."
  • 1 John 1: "That which we have seen and heard we declare to you."
  • Acts 2: "Men of Israel ... Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs ... as you yourselves also know"  (Not only does Peter claim to be an eyewitness, he is reminding his enemies that they know for themselves the truth of what he is telling them.)

As far as "We are witnesses of these things" concerns friendly witnesses, and "You yourselves also know" concerns hostile witnesses, the documents must all have been written within the lifetimes of those who witnessed Jesus's ministry.

Or were deliberately written to sound that way. Remember that at the time Christianity was in its infancy and was trying very hard to establish itself. Appeals to witnesses would be very useful in legitimising what would otherwise have been viewed as heresy.

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Epistles of PaulA.D 50-66
MattewA.D. 70-80
MarkA.D. 50-60
LukeA.D. 60-65
JohnA.D. 80-100

So in the case of the John some 50 years after the death of Jesus. Even the earliest writings are 20 years later. So nothing was written at the time and to be honest it's dubious that any of them were written by the same people that are claimed to have written them.

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Irenaeus, martyred in 156 A.D. after having been a Christian for 86 years, had this to say about the New Testament:
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"So firm is the ground upon which these Gospels rest, that the very heretics themselves bear witness to them, and, starting from these documents, each one of them endeavors to establish his own particular doctrine."

So 120 years after the death then. That's several generations later. And he was writing to claim that the books of the bible he liked were real rather than the various other gospels that were floating about at the time. So given that how are we supposed to know that the ones he liked are any more real than the other ones?

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The account by Thallus that I mentioned is referenced by Julius Africanus in A.D. 221.  Thallus wrote the direct account (which does not survive) and Julius is commenting on it:
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"On the whole world there pressed a most fearful darkness, and the rocks were rent by an earthquake, and many places in Judea and other districts were thrown down.  This darkness Thallus, in the third book of his history, calls, as appears to me without reason, an eclipse of the sun."

Yep. And that's the entire surviving quote. Where's the proof he was talking about a darkness and earthquake at the time of Jesus' death? And Thallus's writings date from at least 40 years after Jesus' death anyway.

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Pliny the Younger has this to say in a letter to Emperor Trajan, regarding the early Christians, in A.D. 112:
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"They were in the habit of meeting on a certain fixed say before it was light, when they sang in alternate verses a hymn to Christ, as to a god ... and then reassemble to partake of food, but food of an ordinary and innocent kind."

And no one denies that there were already Christians in 60AD when Pliny was born. I asked for a contemporary quote and you've given me quotes from people who weren't even born when the crucifixion supposedly occurred. This is exactly what I mean when I say that there are no contemporary records that mention Jesus. Every single thing is from at least 20 years later with most being from much later.

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According to Michael Wilkins and J.P. Moreland, even absent any Christian writings, historians could conclude the following:

  • Jesus was a Jewish teacher
  • many people believed that he performed healings and exorcisms
  • he was rejected by the Jewish leaders
  • he was crucified under Pontius Pilate in the reign of Tiberius
  • all kinds of people -- men and women, slave and free -- worshiped him as God

I wouldn't agree that you could do it without Christian writings. You've yet to show a single record mentioning Jesus from even 50AD that is from a non-Christian source.

I have no problem accepting that that much might be true based on how quickly Christianity started up. And given how much agreement there is over the life of Jesus 50 years later a lot of those points could be true. In fact I'd go so far as to say that I'd put the odds that there was a real Jesus as higher than that there wasn't.

But my point is that even that much can't be proved from the writings of the time. And given how quickly even modern cults can spring up, believing in all kinds of nonsense, it is possible that the entire story of Jesus is a fabrication.
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Offline Scotty

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Quote from: karajorma
You sure?


Quote from: The same article he linked to
suggests a date of between the 60s and 90s

Fairly certain.  The 60s (or most of them, anyway) fall within the given time frame.

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Or were deliberately written to sound that way.

Oh my Gosh!  It makes sense!  It has to be a conspiracy!

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Even the earliest writings are 20 years later.


Which is still WELL within the 200 years for a legend or myth to develop, or even the 100 argued earlier this thread.

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So 120 years after the death then.

120 years after the death he has been a Christian for 86 years, and bases his belief on the gospels.

EDIT:  Fixed a quote issue.

 

Offline karajorma

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Quote from: The same article he linked to
suggests a date of between the 60s and 90s

Let me actually quote the proper article

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de Jong argued for a date of 100-110 AD, due to the Epistles links with Ignatius and Polycarp, while Marshall suggests a date of between the 60s and 90s.[4] Rensberger suggests a dating of around 100 for the Johannine Epistles, on the basis that the Gospel of John was written in the 90s. Brown has also argued for a date of between 100 and 110 with all three epistles being written in close proximity.

That's the second time today you've tried to misrepresent someone's point of view via selective editing and been called on it. Stop being such a ****ing coward.

I linked to an article that gave several proposed dates with all but one of them quite a bit later than the one you claim. If you're going to claim that Marshall is the correct one, you're going to have to prove exactly why.

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Or were deliberately written to sound that way.

Oh my Gosh!  It makes sense!  It has to be a conspiracy!

Nope. Just simple spin and PR. Instead of admitting that the story was written many years later, simply write it as if it was written at the time. It's pretty minor edit really and I don't find it at all unbelievable.

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Which is still WELL within the 200 years for a legend or myth to develop, or even the 100 argued earlier this thread.

I don't give a damn about that figure. It's a complete arse-pull. It's not in any way scientific. Just because Goober has asserted that legends take 200 years to be written down doesn't mean I have to take that as a fact. There are no records of Jesus' life that were written while he was alive. While something like that is odd for the New Testament it's downright suspicious for the New Testament given how much the Romans wrote about everything!

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120 years after the death he has been a Christian for 86 years, and bases his belief on the gospels.

So still after the death then? My complaint was that there wasn't a single contemporary record. Records from people born after Jesus' death do not count as contemporary. :rolleyes:
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Offline Scotty

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Re: For clarification purposes!
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That's the second time today you've tried to misrepresent someone's point of view via selective editing and been called on it.

Second today?  I just got on less than an hour ago.

*checks watch*

Sorry, an hour 15 minutes ago.

 

Offline Turambar

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Quote
That's the second time today you've tried to misrepresent someone's point of view via selective editing and been called on it.

Second today?  I just got on less than an hour ago.

*checks watch*

Sorry, an hour 15 minutes ago.

You posted last night, which is this morning for Kara
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10:56:01   HerraTohtori: :D

 

Offline Scotty

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Ah, right.

 

Offline Goober5000

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Re: For clarification purposes!
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I gave references to back up what I said. Goober didn't even do that.
In the matter of references, I supplied a list of historians in my previous post.  If you like, I can supply an extensive bibliography, though it's in book form, not hyperlink form.

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Or were deliberately written to sound that way. Remember that at the time Christianity was in its infancy and was trying very hard to establish itself. Appeals to witnesses would be very useful in legitimising what would otherwise have been viewed as heresy.
An appeal to both friendly and hostile witnesses is suicide unless the events described were irrefutable.  A hostile witness would be only too happy to refute a false claim.  But no hostile witness could disprove any of the events in question; they could only interpret or construe them for their own purposes.

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So in the case of the John some 50 years after the death of Jesus. Even the earliest writings are 20 years later. So nothing was written at the time and to be honest it's dubious that any of them were written by the same people that are claimed to have written them.
Not only is it not dubious, it is probable that they were written by their claimed authors, given the documentary record.  Furthermore, 20 and 50 years is an incredibly short time by historical standards.  Numerous historical accounts were passed down by word of mouth for hundreds of years before they were written down in the first place.

Incidentally, we haven't even touched yet upon the extensive quotations to be found in the letters by the early church fathers.  The widespread availablility of quotations (sufficient to reconstruct all but eleven verses of the New Testament, according to Sir David Dalrymple) and the dates of the church fathers' letters themselves, lend further credibility to the dating of the primary documents.

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So 120 years after the death then.
As Scotty pointed out, Irenaeus became a Christian 37 years after the death of Jesus, not 120.

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I asked for a contemporary quote and you've given me quotes from people who weren't even born when the crucifixion supposedly occurred. This is exactly what I mean when I say that there are no contemporary records that mention Jesus. Every single thing is from at least 20 years later with most being from much later.
Except that Jesus himself was, from the world's point of view, a passing fad.  He came out of nowhere, enjoyed tremendous popularity for a short time, and then was unceremoniously rejected by the people and executed as a common criminal.  There may have been records kept of his life, but after his execution very few people would have judged them worth preserving for more than a few years, any more than a person of today would want to keep a newspaper around for more than a few days.

It was only later, after Jesus's followers grew to noticeable size, that his historical significance became apparent.  And even then, non-Christian writers were more concerned about the phenomenon of Christianity itself, and its immediate implications, than how it got started in the first place.

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You've yet to show a single record mentioning Jesus from even 50AD that is from a non-Christian source.
Try this one, from the Annals of Cornelius Tacitus.  Not from 50AD, but pretty close:
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But not all the relief that could come from man, not all the bounties that the prince could bestow, nor all the atonements which could be presented to the gods, availed to relieve Nero from the infamy of being believed to have ordered the conflagration, the fire of Rome.  Hence to suppress the rumor, he falsely charged with the guilt, and punished with the most exquisite tortures, the persons commonly called Christians, who were hated for their enormities.  Christus, the founder of the name, was put to death by Pontius Pilate, procurator of Judea in the reign of Tiberius: but the pernicious superstition, repressed for a time, broke out again, not only through Judea, where the mischief originated, but throughout the city of Rome also.


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I have no problem accepting that that much might be true based on how quickly Christianity started up. And given how much agreement there is over the life of Jesus 50 years later a lot of those points could be true. In fact I'd go so far as to say that I'd put the odds that there was a real Jesus as higher than that there wasn't.

But my point is that even that much can't be proved from the writings of the time. And given how quickly even modern cults can spring up, believing in all kinds of nonsense, it is possible that the entire story of Jesus is a fabrication.
Except that cults do not spring up under the sort of persecution experienced by the early Christians.  They had everything to lose and little to gain by witnessing to the historical accuracy of the gospels and epistles.

Secondly, disqualifying all the Christian documents on the basis of partiality is not justifiable.  No judge would toss out a case based on the fact that the only witness to a crime was the victim himself.

Finally, you have long since crossed the line of reasonable skepticism and are now engaging in counter-advocacy.  You're not following Aristotle's literary dictum that "the benefit of the doubt is to be given to the document itself, not arrogated by the critic to himself".  Based on the number of extant Christian manuscripts, their proximity to the events they describe, and their corroboration by other sources; especially when compared to the same statistics for other historical records, there is no reason to reject them as historically accurate.
« Last Edit: May 01, 2009, 11:02:28 pm by Goober5000 »

 

Offline General Battuta

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Goob, I have no problem believing that Christ lived and died, but I have to ask, why do the writings of Christianity receive special precedence over the writings of other religions in which individuals also witnessed miraculous events?

And how do we account for the contradictions between these different, equally supported belief systems?

Saying that Christianity is unique because Christ died for our sins is a cop-out, for reasons I hope you can understand. We can just as fairly say that Buddha lived and died to teach us how to escape the cycle of reincarnation.

 

Offline Goober5000

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Goob, I have no problem believing that Christ lived and died, but I have to ask, why do the writings of Christianity receive special precedence over the writings of other religions in which individuals also witnessed miraculous events?
They don't receive special precedence per se.  They receive special attention because of their unequaled historical reliability, as explicated in this thread and elsewhere.  If one considers the documents to be historically reliable about events that he can verify, then he must also, if he is unbiased, consider the documents to be historically reliable about things he cannot verify, including the miracles.

So the only "precedence" arises because Christianity is the religion most thoroughly attested by the historical record.  But that does not automatically mean that accounts of miracles in other religions are then false.  I'm not willing to conclude a priori that a miracle in another religion could not have happened.  If you show me a documented instance of a miracle, I'll concede the point unless I find something to contradict it.

This is not only consistent with the principle I referred to above (the benefit of doubt should be given to the document, not the critic); is also consistent with Christianity.  Jesus himself said that there would be others who would perform signs and wonders, many of whom would attract great followings.  And the Bible's continual reference to "unclean spirits" would tend to support the idea of spiritual beings performing miracles on Earth to further their own agendas.

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And how do we account for the contradictions between these different, equally supported belief systems?
Contradictions in the beliefs, or the historical accounts?

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Saying that Christianity is unique because Christ died for our sins is a cop-out, for reasons I hope you can understand. We can just as fairly say that Buddha lived and died to teach us how to escape the cycle of reincarnation.
Agreed.

 

Offline General Battuta

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Re: For clarification purposes!
Goob, I have no problem believing that Christ lived and died, but I have to ask, why do the writings of Christianity receive special precedence over the writings of other religions in which individuals also witnessed miraculous events?
They don't receive special precedence per se.  They receive special attention because of their unequaled historical reliability, as explicated in this thread and elsewhere.  If one considers the documents to be historically reliable about events that he can verify, then he must also, if he is unbiased, consider the documents to be historically reliable about things he cannot verify, including the miracles.

So the only "precedence" arises because Christianity is the religion most thoroughly attested by the historical record. 

I'm not sure we can consider this true without putting some very Western judgments on it. Islam, for example, is very well-documented, and the sheer age of Confucianism and Hinduism suggest they have a lot more to draw on. I'm not ready to accept that Christianity is the best documented without a lot of research.

Furthermore. I'm not disputing the existence of Jesus. But your case primarily rests on proving that miracles actually happened. Doesn't it bother you to try to establish a religion factually, instead of making it a matter of faith?

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This is not only consistent with the principle I referred to above (the benefit of doubt should be given to the document, not the critic); is also consistent with Christianity.  Jesus himself said that there would be others who would perform signs and wonders, many of whom would attract great followings.  And the Bible's continual reference to "unclean spirits" would tend to support the idea of spiritual beings performing miracles on Earth to further their own agendas.

Well...it's consistent, sure. But Islam also makes statements about how prophets will precede Mohammed, and it at least doesn't have the decency to call them all unclean. So by that logic, isn't the Bible compatible with Islam, for example? If we took Islam as our primary source, just as you're using the Bible as a context for events in other religions? I'm sure we could find instances in other religions.

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And how do we account for the contradictions between these different, equally supported belief systems?
Contradictions in the beliefs, or the historical accounts?

Both. Because you're using the historical account to justify the beliefs, right?

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Saying that Christianity is unique because Christ died for our sins is a cop-out, for reasons I hope you can understand. We can just as fairly say that Buddha lived and died to teach us how to escape the cycle of reincarnation.
Agreed.

Yay!