You'll forgive me if I don't. If he can't be bothered to explain his math in a simple article about said math, or submit his hypothesis to peer review in a real journal, then I can't be bothered to take him seriously as a scientist.
Good point. I don't know why he doesn't have links to published stuff, or why he doesn't provide formulas (I would guess it's because he wanted to leave the website articles accessible to the layman). Why don't you ask him yourself? His email is published at the bottom of the About page:
[email protected]Not entirely.
You see, here's the way I'm coming at this:
1. Your hypothesis is that the Bible contains an encoded version of real history, based on your observation that scientific evidence seems to kinda-sorta link up to biblical accounts.
2. If we take this hypothesis as true, then we should be able to make inferences about future discoveries by studying the bible, or find historical evidence for events mentioned there.
But what happens if we do try that? Suddenly, the bible doesn't actually seem to hold just the truths, but a collection of truths and allegories and metaphors in a wild jumble, without a clear and universally accepted guide on what is what.
Let's take the story of Noah and the Ark as an example. If it was true, if all of that really happened, we would need to see several things reflected in the historical and archaeological record. We would need to see signs of worldwide flooding. We would need to see signs of a massive die-off of animals and humans around the same time. We would also need to see a sudden burst in speciation shortly afterwards. We would also have to see a clear pattern of migration lines from the Ark's last resting place to the rest of the world.
However, none of these things can be found. So, what does that mean? Clearly, you would say, this means that this story is allegorical, but how would you know this from the text? And what is it an allegory for?
Couple of points here, in brief.
Regarding the inferences of future discoveries, place yourself 100 years ago, make that statement, and then live through finding out there was a beginning to the universe. Or, if you prefer, there's a series of
fiction novels by one Joel Rosenberg that he has written over the last 15ish years or so. He based the fictional events depicted in his books on
his understanding of Biblical prophecy. He made national headlines when real-world events occurred that were uncannily similar to the events depicted in his books.
Regarding Noah and the Ark... from what I understand, all or nearly all ancient cultures have an account of a great flood. Whether it was truly world-wide (the entire planet), "merely" known-world-wide, or regional (think something like the Mediterranean basin before the ocean broke through the Straits of Gibraltar) is hard to determine considering the Hebrew word used for describing the flood's AOE is ארץ (eretz), which can be translated as earth, land, country, etc (
here's one of many articles about this - didn't read it thoroughly though).
Personally I suspect it was a regional flood, not planet-wide, if for no other reason than the numbers of animals brought onto the ark would have been insufficient to repopulate the planet - 2 males & 2 females of the unclean animals, 7 males and 7 females of the clean ones.
You might want to reread that.
It's kinda hard for "the morning stars to sing together" when they didn't exist yet according to Genesis, hence the contradiction. But hey, let's ignore Job then and consider that Genesis, the supposed reference on creation, tells us that the Earth was created before the stars...
We covered this before. The Genesis 1 account is that light was created before the earth. Unless you presume - as some really weird Christians do - that the light in question came from God Himself, that light had to have come from stars, including Sol. The day it attributes to the placing of the sun, moon, and stars in the heavens was when the atmospheric haze thinned enough for said bodies to become visible.
Ah... so when the Bible is wrong, it's our comprehension that is lacking and somehow it is correct in a cryptic way, and when it's close enough for people to say "Well, if you squint your eyes enough it kinda looks close" it's correct.
If you take out the mocking and inherent sarcasm in that statement, then yes, that's my belief.
I know, but given that Sandwich was making the claim that scientists should make allowances for the fact that the entire methodology of science is wrong, I was wondering if he'd agree that religion should also make the same allowance or if he'd simply hide behind the whole "The bible is true, we might be reading it wrong though" argument.
Not the methodology - the interpretation of the results. The allowance that perhaps the instruments used to obtain those results were flawed. Scientists understand that this is a possibility, which is why things are checked and verified repeatedly.
Now whether you believe the Bible is truth or not, it is what it is. Opening the book at a different angle isn't going to give you different text. What is written (in the original languages) is written and unchangeable. So the earliest possible place to account for a "flawed instrument" in the process is in our understanding of what was written.
Perhaps I'm not being clear somehow, but in my mind I'm trying to get across the point that I'm applying to the Bible what I see scientists applying to the universe - the acknowledgement that we might be introducing an error somewhere.
Conveniently, I actually study astronomy and cosmology. Why don't you just ask me? 
Ah, good!

He later retracted that fudge factor when Hubble's observations of galactic redshift (1929) showed that the universe was indeed expanding. Many cosmologists adopted the expanding universe model around this time. The detection and characterization of the CMB in the 60s finally converted most of the rest. But yes, you are right, we did not always have the currently accepted model of cosmology, just like we didn't always have the currently accepted model of the atom.
Thought you meant the Hubble space telescope for a while here and had done a major typo...

This is a very interesting claim; I've never heard it before. I would have supposed a claim like that should have come with something to support it... a link to the calculations, perhaps? I prefer rigor with my science.
His articles state multiple times that the details are in his books.
(b) The 'rate of doubling' literally means the time for the scale factor of the universe to double. This is the time it takes for the distance between comoving points to double, which is directly proportional to the expansion velocity (the latter is the time derivative of the former). So no, it does not take longer and longer for the universe to double in size, nor does his explanation for it make any physical sense.
If the rate of expansion (how fast the outer boundaries are travelling outwards from the center) is, say, 100mph, then it would take 1 hour for a 200 mile diameter sphere to double in size to 400 miles. It would then take
2 hours to double in size again, to 800 miles. Next doubling in size would take 4 hours, etc. That's the size increase I thought he was talking about.. is there something wrong with that?
That's all I feel like saying as someone who studies cosmology for right now. If anyone else wants to dive into this kind of silliness then this site looks like it has some good funnies. But I just want to say that I honestly don't care what theological beliefs anybody holds; indeed I respect them. Just please don't expect me to take you seriously if you try to use scientific principles to support them unless you really do understand the science in question.
At some point we all have to stand on the shoulders of those who came before us, presuming that what they discovered was accurate. If not, we'd be reinventing the wheel with each generation.
Anyway, the TalkReason.org article argues against Schroeder's theories based on the presumption that because we can't (yet) measure something to be true or not, it can't exist:
"Therefore, what lasted six days 15 billions years ago, lasts exactly six days now. If there were available some other observable universe, which could be utilized as an independent frame of reference, then it could be possible to find out if one day in our century is different from one day 15 billion years ago. As it is, the length of a day in our century is to all intents and purposes exactly the same as it was 15 billion years ago."
Uhm... I kinda sorta disagree. Perhaps we can't (yet) base scientific calculations based on something we can't (yet)measure, but that does not equate to that something not existing. Wasn't one of our own solar system's planets (Pluto?)discovered by observing the orbits of nearby planets and figuring out that they didn't make sense unless there was something else out there gravitationally affecting it? How about all those galaxies revealed by the Hubble Deep Field? Did they not exist before we observed them? If Newton followed the above logic, he would never have figured out gravity... postulating that something we can't directly measure might exist? Heck, to the best of my knowledge, we
still can't measure gravity itself, can we? We measure the effects it has on objects, but have we been able to observe "gravitons" or whatever the "gravity particle/field/wave/whatever" is called?
Yes, I'm sure he is using a formula, but the problem is that his description of the expansion of the universe is wrong, and so his conclusions about the time dilation are also wrong. He making the common mistake of thinking of it as a sphere with constantly expanding radius, and labeling the scale factor as the ratio of radii at different times. If that were the case, then dR/dt = v = a constant, and R(t) = R0 + vt. The 'doubling time', then, is the time required for vt to equal R(t), so you get tdouble = (R0 + vt)/v = R/v + t. As you can see, the doubling time is proportional to the age, which is consistent with his description.
But this is not how the real universe works. The universe's expansion is a Metric Expansion, which means that the rate at which two points move away from one another is directly proportional to the distance between them. (From this comes Hubble's Law). If that rate is constant, then the scale factor, being the distance between two points now divided by the distance at some prior time, increases at a constant rate as well. Therefore his assertion that most of the 6 days gets compressed to the earlier times in the 15 (14!) billion year history does not work.
Sorry, but most of that is above my head.

I read the Wikipedia article's intro, and understood it from the 3rd paragraph onwards.

I'm a very visual learner, so examples I can envision help.

Anyway, why don't you write him to ask how he takes what you're saying into account?
[email protected]